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30 questions · 2 formulas
Annuity payment
PMT = L × i / [1 − (1+i)^(−n)]
Trap: Monthly loans: i = annual/12, n = years × 12.
After-tax real borrowing rate
after-tax nominal = i(1 − t); real = (1 + i(1−t)) / (1 + π) − 1
Mortgage & LeverageE-level★ High priority — official Canvas exampleNominal mortgage rate rises from 5% to 7%; tax deduction rate 30%, inflation 2%. By how much does approximate real after-tax mortgage rate rise?
→ B) 1.4 percentage points
Canvas Example MCQ — Q33
- A) 1.0 percentage point
- B) 1.4 percentage points
- C) 2.0 percentage points
- D) 40%
- E) None of A-D is close; write the correct answer.
Initial rr = .05(.70)-.02 = .015 = 1.5%. New rr = .07(.70)-.02 = .029 = 2.9%. Change = 2.9%-1.5% = 1.4 percentage points.
Rule: A rate moving from 1.5% to 2.9% rises by 1.4 percentage points.
Mortgage & LeverageE-level★ High priority — official Canvas exampleReal after-tax mortgage rate rises from 1.5% to 2.9%. Which description is correct?
→ B) It increases by 1.4 percentage points, corresponding to about 93.3%.
Canvas Example MCQ — Q34
- A) It increases by 1.4%.
- B) It increases by 1.4 percentage points, corresponding to about 93.3%.
- C) It increases by 93.3 percentage points.
- D) It increases by 2.0 percentage points, corresponding to 40%.
- E) None of A-D is close; write the correct answer.
Percentage-point change = 2.9-1.5 = 1.4 pp. Percentage change = 1.4/1.5 = 0.9333 = 93.3%.
Rule: Never confuse percentage points with relative percent change.
Mortgage & LeverageE-level★ High priority — official Canvas exampleNominal mortgage 6%, tax deduction 30%. Inflation rises from 2% to 4%. What happens to real after-tax rate?
→ B) The real after-tax mortgage rate decreases by 2 percentage points.
Canvas Example MCQ — Q35
- A) The real after-tax mortgage rate increases by 2 percentage points.
- B) The real after-tax mortgage rate decreases by 2 percentage points.
- C) The real after-tax mortgage rate decreases by 30%.
- D) Inflation has no effect because mortgage interest is tax deductible.
- E) None of A-D is close; write the correct answer.
Before: .06(.70)-.02 = 2.2%. After: .06(.70)-.04 = 0.2%. Change = -2.0 pp.
Rule: Higher inflation lowers the approximate real borrowing cost when nominal rate and tax treatment are fixed.
Mortgage & LeverageE-level★ High priority — official Canvas exampleInitially r=5%, tax deduction=30%, inflation=2%. Later r=7%, tax deduction=30%, inflation=3%. New real after-tax mortgage rate?
→ B) 1.9%
Canvas Example MCQ — Q36
- A) 1.5%
- B) 1.9%
- C) 2.9%
- D) 4.9%
- E) None of A-D is close; write the correct answer.
.07(.70)-.03 = .049-.03 = .019 = 1.9%.
Rule: Apply the formula to the new values, not the changes.
LogitD–A level★ High priority — official Canvas exampleSame Logit with FIXRATE=12, MARGIN=2, NETWORTH=3. Marginal effect of MARGIN?
→ C) approximately -7.5 percentage points
Canvas Example MCQ — Q93
Given: Logit model for choosing an adjustable-rate mortgage. At FIXRATE=12, MARGIN=2, NETWORTH=3 the index is z = −0.80. MARGIN coefficient = −0.35. Logit: P = 1/(1+e^(−z)); marginal effect = b·P·(1−P).
- A) approximately -35.0 percentage points
- B) approximately -12.8 percentage points
- C) approximately -7.5 percentage points
- D) approximately +7.5 percentage points
- E) None of A-D is close; write the correct answer.
z=-0.80, P≈0.3100. ME = (-.35)(.31)(.69) = -.0749 ≈ -7.49 pp.
Rule: Logit ME = β x P(1-P).
ProbitD–A levelVery high priorityUsing Model 1, what is the marginal effect of MARGIN on the probability of choosing an adjustable rate mortgage if FIXRATE = 10, MARGIN = 3 and NETWORTH = 3.5?
→ B) ‒0.0092
Old Exam — Oct 2023, Q16 · adapted
Given: Probit Model 1: z = −7.0166 + 0.5301·FIXRATE − 0.2675·MARGIN + 0.0864·NETWORTH; P(ARM) = Φ(z); marginal effect of X = b_X·φ(z).
- A) ‒0.0030
- B) ‒0.0092
- C) ‒0.0343
- D) ‒0.2675
- E) None of the above (A, B, C, D) is close to be correct.
Model 1: z=-7.0166+0.5301(10)-0.2675(3)+0.0864(3.5). Then ME_MARGIN=-0.2675 phi(z)≈-0.0092 -> B.
Rule: Phi(.) gives probability; phi(.) enters Probit marginal effects. Raw Probit coefficients are not percentage-point effects.
ProbitD–A levelVery high priorityWhat is the estimated probability of a borrower choosing an adjustable-rate mortgage if FIXRATE = 14, MARGIN = 3, and NETWORTH = 4? The probability is closest to____
→ D) 0.4780
Old Exam — Oct 2022, Q22
Given: Probit Model 1: z=-7.0166+0.5301 FIXRATE-0.2675 MARGIN+0.0864 NETWORTH.
- A) 0.1762
- B) 0.3707
- C) 0.6837 This is when FIXRATE = 15, which is not what the question is about. Correct answer is 0.478 with FIXRATE = 14, therefore D is the correct answer.
- D) 0.4780
- E) None of the above (A, B, C, D) is close to be correct.
z=-7.0166+0.5301(14)-0.2675(3)+0.0864(4)≈-0.055. Phi(z)≈0.478 -> D.
Rule: Phi(.) gives probability; phi(.) enters Probit marginal effects. Raw Probit coefficients are not percentage-point effects.
ProbitD–A levelVery high priorityUsing Model 2, what is the marginal effect of MARGIN on the probability of choosing an adjustable rate mortgage if FIXRATE = 11.5 and MARGIN = 2.5?
→ A) ‒0.0202
Old Exam — Oct 2022, Q23
Given: Probit Model 2: z=-9.8200+0.7535 FIXRATE-0.1945 MARGIN; ME_MARGIN=b_MARGIN x phi(z).
- A) ‒0.0202
- B) ‒1.641
- C) 0.1038
- D) 0.039
- E) None of the above (A, B, C, D) is close to be correct.
Model 2: z=-9.82+0.7535(11.5)-0.1945(2.5)≈-1.64. phi(z)≈0.1038. ME_MARGIN=-0.1945x0.1038≈-0.0202 -> A.
Rule: Phi(.) gives probability; phi(.) enters Probit marginal effects. Raw Probit coefficients are not percentage-point effects.
ProbitD–A levelVery high priorityUsing Model 1, what is the marginal effect of NETWORTH on the probability of choosing an adjustable rate mortgage if FIXRATE = 11.5, MARGIN = 2.5 and NETWORTH = 3?
→ C) 0.0142
Old Exam — Oct 2022, Q24 · adapted
Given: Probit Model 1: z = −7.0166 + 0.5301·FIXRATE − 0.2675·MARGIN + 0.0864·NETWORTH; P(ARM) = Φ(z); marginal effect of X = b_X·φ(z).
- A) ‒0.092
- B) ‒0.0441
- C) 0.0142
- D) 0.039
- E) None of the above (A, B, C, D) is close to be correct.
Model 1: compute z at FIXRATE=11.5, MARGIN=2.5, NETWORTH=3; then ME_NETWORTH=0.0864 phi(z)≈0.0142 -> C.
Rule: Phi(.) gives probability; phi(.) enters Probit marginal effects. Raw Probit coefficients are not percentage-point effects.
Mortgage & LeverageE-levelHigh priorityCentre Point purchase price = $885,000, LTV = 75%, up-front financing cost = 3% of the loan. What is the Initial Equity required?
→ A) $241,162.50
Computer Lab 1 — Exercise 2B, Step 1
- A) $241,162.50
- B) $221,250.00
- C) $663,750.00
- D) $259,912.50
Loan = 885,000×75% = 663,750. Financing cost = 663,750×3% = 19,912.50. Net loan proceeds = 663,750−19,912.50 = 643,837.50. Initial Equity = 885,000 − 643,837.50 = $241,162.50.
Rule: Initial Equity = Purchase Price − Net Loan Proceeds, where Net Loan Proceeds = Loan − up-front financing cost.
Mortgage & LeverageD–A levelHigh priorityA $663,750 loan carries an 8% annual mortgage rate, amortized over 30 years with monthly payments (CPM). What is the approximate monthly payment?
→ A) $4,870.36
Computer Lab 1 — Exercise 2B, Step 2
- A) $4,870.36
- B) $5,530.00
- C) $4,425.00
- D) $58,444.35
Monthly i=8%/12=0.66667%, n=360. PMT = Loan×i/[1−(1+i)^-n] = 663,750×0.0066667/[1−(1.0066667)^-360] = $4,870.36.
Rule: CPM monthly payment: PMT = Loan × i / [1 − (1+i)^(−n)], with i and n expressed monthly.
Mortgage & LeverageD–A levelHigh priorityA mortgage has monthly PMT = $4,870.36, monthly rate i=0.66667%, and original term 360 months. After 5 years (60 payments), what is the Remaining Mortgage Balance (RMB)?
→ A) $631,026.17, the PV of the remaining 300 payments
Computer Lab 1 — Exercise 2B, Step 3
- A) $631,026.17, the PV of the remaining 300 payments
- B) $371,715.00, original loan minus 60 payments made
- C) $663,750.00, unchanged since CPM keeps balance constant
- D) $58,444.35, one year of debt service
RMB after 60 payments = PV of remaining 300 payments = PMT×[1−(1+i)^-300]/i = 4,870.36×[1−(1.0066667)^-300]/0.0066667 = $631,026.17.
Rule: Remaining mortgage balance = present value, at that point in time, of all remaining scheduled payments — not loan minus cash paid.
Mortgage & LeverageD–A levelHigh priorityCentre Point Year 5: NOI5=$100,282.83, annual debt service=$58,444.35, Net Sale Proceeds (NSP)=$974,613.20, Remaining Mortgage Balance (RMB)=$631,026.17. What is the total equity cash flow in Year 5?
→ A) $385,425.51
Computer Lab 1 — Exercise 2B, Question 8
- A) $385,425.51
- B) $343,587.03
- C) $1,074,896.04
- D) $41,838.49
BTCF5 = NOI5 − debt service = 100,282.83−58,444.35 = 41,838.49. BTER = NSP−RMB = 974,613.20−631,026.17 = 343,587.03. Year5 equity CF = BTCF5+BTER = 41,838.49+343,587.03 = $385,425.51.
Rule: Year-of-sale equity cash flow = BTCF + BTER, where BTER = Net Sale Proceeds − Remaining Mortgage Balance.
Mortgage & LeverageD–A levelHigh priorityCentre Point levered (equity) cash flows: CF0=-$241,162.50; CF1=$30,655.65; CF2=$33,328.65; CF3=$36,081.84; CF4=$38,917.63; CF5=$385,425.51. At a required equity return of 16%, calculate the levered NPV and decide.
→ A) NPV ≈ +$38,149.47 → invest
Computer Lab 1 — Exercise 2B, Question 9
- A) NPV ≈ +$38,149.47 → invest
- B) NPV ≈ -$38,149.47 → reject
- C) NPV ≈ +$76,789.79 → invest
- D) NPV ≈ $0 → indifferent
Discounting the equity CFs at 16%: PV1=26,427.28, PV2=24,768.62, PV3=23,116.11, PV4=21,493.86, PV5=183,506.10, sum=279,311.97. NPV=-241,162.50+279,311.97=+$38,149.47 → invest.
Rule: Levered NPV decision rule: discount equity cash flows at the required EQUITY return (not the unlevered return).
Mortgage & LeverageD–A levelHigh priorityFor Centre Point's levered cash flows, NPV at 20% = +$2,071.48 and NPV at 21% = -$5,942.50. Interpolating, the levered IRR is approximately 20.25%. Given a required equity return of 16%, what is the investment decision?
→ A) Invest — 20.25% exceeds the required equity return of 16%
Computer Lab 1 — Exercise 2B, Question 10
- A) Invest — 20.25% exceeds the required equity return of 16%
- B) Reject — 20.25% is below the required equity return
- C) Indifferent — IRR equals the required return
- D) Cannot decide without the unlevered IRR
Levered IRR (~20.25%) > required equity return (16%), so by the IRR decision rule the investor should invest.
Rule: IRR decision rule: invest if IRR > required (hurdle) return for that cash-flow stream.
Mortgage & LeverageD–A levelHigh priorityA $1,500,000 loan at 10% annual interest, 15-year term, monthly payments, has monthly PMT=$16,119.08. After 5 years (60 payments, 120 remaining), what is the remaining mortgage balance?
→ A) ≈$1,219,749.29
Computer Lab 1 — Exercise 3 Problem 4
- A) ≈$1,219,749.29
- B) ≈$1,000,000.00
- C) ≈$967,145.20
- D) ≈$1,500,000.00 (unchanged)
RMB5 = PMT × [1−(1+i)^-120]/i with i=10%/12=0.833333%. RMB5 = 16,119.08×[1−(1.00833333)^-120]/0.00833333 ≈ $1,219,749.29.
Rule: Remaining balance after k payments = PV, at that time, of the remaining (n−k) scheduled payments, discounted at the monthly rate.
Mortgage & LeverageE-levelHigh priorityA small income property has Year-1 NOI of $150,000. Financing is based on a Debt Coverage Ratio (DCR) of 1.2 applied to first-year NOI. What is the required annual debt service?
→ A) $125,000
Computer Lab 2 — Exercise 1, Step 1
- A) $125,000
- B) $180,000
- C) $150,000
- D) $108,000
DCR = NOI/Debt Service → Debt Service = NOI/DCR = 150,000/1.2 = $125,000.
Rule: Debt Service = NOI / DCR when DCR-based underwriting determines the maximum loan debt service.
Mortgage & LeverageD–A levelHigh priorityAn income property's equity cash flows (after debt service) are: Year1=$25,000; Year2=$29,500; Year3=$34,135; Year4=$38,909.05; Year5=$1,006,601.46 (includes BTER). Required equity return = 12%. What is the present value of the equity interest?
→ A) ≈$666,035.37
Computer Lab 2 — Exercise 1(a)
- A) ≈$666,035.37
- B) ≈$1,134,145.51 (undiscounted sum)
- C) ≈$1,745,458.48
- D) ≈$571,172.70
PV = 25,000/1.12 + 29,500/1.12² + 34,135/1.12³ + 38,909.05/1.12⁴ + 1,006,601.46/1.12⁵ = 22,321.43+23,517.22+24,296.62+24,727.40+571,172.70 = $666,035.37.
Rule: PV of equity interest = sum of each year's equity cash flow discounted at the required equity return.
Mortgage & LeverageD–A levelHigh priorityThe PV of the equity interest in an income property is $666,035.37, and the PV of the mortgage (loan amount today) is $1,079,423.11. Year-1 NOI is $150,000. What is the total property value and implied going-in (overall) cap rate?
→ A) Property value ≈ $1,745,458.48; cap rate ≈ 8.59%
Computer Lab 2 — Exercise 1(b)(c)
- A) Property value ≈ $1,745,458.48; cap rate ≈ 8.59%
- B) Property value ≈ $1,745,458.48; cap rate ≈ 12.00%
- C) Property value ≈ $1,079,423.11; cap rate ≈ 13.90%
- D) Property value ≈ $413,387.74; cap rate ≈ 36.29%
Property Value = PV(equity)+PV(mortgage) = 666,035.37+1,079,423.11 = $1,745,458.48. Going-in cap rate = NOI1/Property Value = 150,000/1,745,458.48 ≈ 8.59%.
Rule: Total property value = PV of debt claim + PV of equity claim. Going-in cap rate = Year-1 NOI ÷ total property value.
Mortgage & LeverageD–A levelHigh priorityA loan's debt service is set annually via a DCR applied to NOI, but mortgage payments are made monthly. What is the correct way to find the remaining mortgage balance after several years?
→ A) Convert to a monthly payment (annual debt service/12), use the monthly interest rate, and discount the remaining number of MONTHLY payments
Computer Lab 2 — Exercise 1 trap
- A) Convert to a monthly payment (annual debt service/12), use the monthly interest rate, and discount the remaining number of MONTHLY payments
- B) Use the annual debt service and annual interest rate directly in the annuity formula with the number of years remaining
- C) Simply subtract total payments made from the original loan amount
- D) The remaining balance equals the original loan amount since DCR fixes it
Since payments occur monthly, the correct method divides annual debt service by 12 to get the monthly PMT, uses the monthly rate (annual rate/12), and finds RMB as the PV of the remaining monthly payments.
Rule: Always match the payment frequency, compounding period, and remaining number of periods — convert annual rates/figures to monthly when payments are monthly.
Mortgage & LeverageD–A levelHigh priorityA $1,500,000 loan carries 10% annual interest, 15-year term, monthly payments. What is the approximate monthly payment (PMT)?
→ A) $16,119.08
Computer Lab 3 — Problem 4
- A) $16,119.08
- B) $12,500.00
- C) $10,000.00
- D) $193,428.92
i=10%/12=0.833333%, n=180. PMT=1,500,000×0.00833333/[1−(1.00833333)^-180]=$16,119.08.
Rule: CPM monthly payment = Loan×i/[1−(1+i)^(−n)], with i and n in months.
Mortgage & LeverageE-levelHigh priorityA mortgage has a nominal rate of 4% and inflation is 2%. What is the real mortgage rate before tax?
→ A) 2.00%
Computer Lab 5 — Exercise 1, Task 2
- A) 2.00%
- B) 6.00%
- C) 2.80%
- D) 0.80%
Real rate before tax = nominal rate − inflation = 4% − 2% = 2.00%.
Rule: Real rate (before tax) = nominal rate − inflation.
Mortgage & LeverageE-levelHigh priorityA mortgage has a nominal rate of 4%, a tax deduction rate of 30%, and inflation of 2%. What is the real after-tax mortgage rate, rr = r(1−t) − inflation?
→ A) 0.80%
Computer Lab 5 — Exercise 1, Task 2
- A) 0.80%
- B) -26.00% (4% − 30% − 2%)
- C) 2.00%
- D) 2.80%
Nominal after-tax rate = 4%×(1−0.30) = 2.80%. Real after-tax rate = 2.80% − 2.00% = 0.80%.
Rule: The tax deduction multiplies the interest cost by (1−t); it does not subtract t directly from the rate in percentage points.
Mortgage & LeverageD–A levelHigh priorityA bank's mortgage book: SEK 3,300bn at 3.2% (variable rate), SEK 900bn at 3.6% (fixed 3 months-5 years), and SEK 100bn at 4.0% (fixed >5 years), total SEK 4,300bn. What is the correctly weighted-average nominal mortgage rate?
→ A) ≈3.30%
Computer Lab 5 — Exercise 1, Task 3
- A) ≈3.30%
- B) 3.60% (simple average of the three rates)
- C) 3.27% (simple average of 3.2% and 3.6% only)
- D) 4.00%, the highest rate category
r_bar = [3300(0.032)+900(0.036)+100(0.040)]/4300 = (105.6+32.4+4.0)/4300 = 142/4300 ≈ 0.03302 = 3.30%.
Rule: Use amount-weighted averages, not simple averages, when categories differ greatly in size.
Mortgage & LeverageE-levelHigh priorityA $70,000,000 interest-only loan carries a 5.5% annual interest rate, with no amortization during the hold. What is the annual interest payment, and what happens to the principal at maturity?
→ A) $3,850,000 annual interest; full $70,000,000 principal repaid as a balloon payment at maturity
Computer Lab 5 — Exercise 2, Step 2
- A) $3,850,000 annual interest; full $70,000,000 principal repaid as a balloon payment at maturity
- B) $3,850,000 annual interest; principal amortizes gradually like a standard CPM loan
- C) $7,000,000 annual interest; no principal repayment needed
- D) $385,000 annual interest; balloon payment at maturity
Annual interest = 70,000,000 × 5.5% = 3,850,000. Since the loan is interest-only, no amortization occurs; the entire $70,000,000 principal is repaid as a balloon payment at maturity.
Rule: Interest-only loans: fixed interest each year during the hold, full principal repaid at maturity (no CPM amortization).
DCF / NPV / IRRD–A levelVery high priorityA property's value grows from $100,000,000 at purchase to $121,665,290.24 at sale in Year 5 (a participating mortgage with 20% lender participation in appreciation). What is the lender's participation payment at sale, using Part = share × max(Sale price − Purchase price, 0)?
→ A) ≈$4,333,058
Computer Lab 5 — Exercise 2, Task 1
- A) ≈$4,333,058
- B) ≈$21,665,290
- C) ≈$24,333,058
- D) $0, because appreciation participation only applies to NOI
Appreciation = 121,665,290.24 − 100,000,000 = 21,665,290.24. Lender participation = 20% × 21,665,290.24 ≈ 4,333,058.05.
Rule: Participation in appreciation = share × max(sale price − purchase price, 0); apply the share only to the appreciation amount, not the full sale price.
DCF / NPV / IRRD–A levelVery high priorityUnder a participating mortgage where the lender shares 20% of annual NOI above a $700,000 threshold, Year 1 NOI is $7,000,000. What is the lender's Year 1 NOI participation payment, using Participation_t = 20% × max(NOI_t − 700,000, 0)?
→ A) $1,260,000
Computer Lab 5 — Exercise 2, Task 2
- A) $1,260,000
- B) $1,400,000
- C) $6,300,000
- D) $0, since there's no appreciation in Year 1
Participation_1 = 20% × (7,000,000 − 700,000) = 20% × 6,300,000 = 1,260,000.
Rule: NOI participation = share × max(NOI − threshold, 0); subtract the threshold before applying the share.
DCF / NPV / IRRE-levelVery high priorityThe MAX(x, 0) function appears in both participating-mortgage formulas in this exercise. What is its purpose?
→ A) It creates upside-only participation: if appreciation or NOI above the threshold is negative, the lender's participation payment is zero, never negative
Computer Lab 5 — Exercise 2, Task 2
- A) It creates upside-only participation: if appreciation or NOI above the threshold is negative, the lender's participation payment is zero, never negative
- B) It caps the lender's participation at a fixed dollar maximum
- C) It ensures the lender always receives at least the base interest payment
- D) It guarantees the borrower a minimum cash flow
MAX(x,0) ensures the lender only participates in positive upside; if the appreciation or NOI-above-threshold value is negative, the lender receives zero participation rather than a negative payment.
Rule: Participation formulas use MAX(...,0) to make participation upside-only, never a cost to the lender.
ProbitE-levelVery high priorityIn a Probit model of choosing an adjustable-rate mortgage (ARM), MARGIN has a coefficient of −0.2675. What is the correct interpretation of the sign, and is −0.2675 itself a percentage-point effect?
→ A) A higher ARM margin makes choosing an adjustable-rate mortgage less attractive (negative sign); the raw coefficient is NOT a direct percentage-point probability effect
Computer Lab 6 — Exercise 3, Model 1 interpretation · adapted
- A) A higher ARM margin makes choosing an adjustable-rate mortgage less attractive (negative sign); the raw coefficient is NOT a direct percentage-point probability effect
- B) A higher ARM margin makes an ARM more attractive, and -0.2675 means exactly a 26.75 percentage-point decrease in probability
- C) The coefficient has no interpretable meaning in a Probit model
- D) -0.2675 is the exact percentage-point change in probability for a one-unit increase in MARGIN
The negative sign indicates direction (higher MARGIN lowers the attractiveness/probability of choosing ARM), but Probit coefficients are index-scale, not probability-scale; the actual probability effect requires multiplying by φ(Xβ), the marginal effect formula.
Rule: Probit coefficient signs indicate direction only; the probability-scale marginal effect requires β_j×φ(Xβ).
Mortgage & LeverageE-levelHigh priorityYou know a loan amount, rate and term for a fully amortizing loan. Annual payment?
→ C) L × i / [1 − (1+i)^(−n)]
Formula Battle — method recognition (built from the Formula Book)
- A) L × i
- B) L / n
- C) L × i / [1 − (1+i)^(−n)]
- D) L(1+i)^n
Annuity formula. Correct method: L × i / [1 − (1+i)^(−n)].
Rule: PMT = L·i / [1 − (1+i)^(−n)]