QUANT LAB
00 XP

Search

25 questions · 5 formulas

NPV

NPV = −I₀ + CF1/(1+r) + CF2/(1+r)² + … + CFT/(1+r)^T

Trap: Forgetting −I₀. Decision: NPV > 0 → accept.

IRR

IRR = r such that NPV(r) = 0

Trap: Compare IRR with the required return, not 0%. For MCQs, test the alternatives.

Solve for sale price

PV(sale) = Price + target NPV − PV(NOIs); Sale = PV(sale) × (1+r)^T

Expected return (3 scenarios)

E[R] = p1·R1 + p2·R2 + p3·R3

Trap: Don't take a simple average.

Variance & SD

Var = p1(R1−E)² + p2(R2−E)² + p3(R3−E)² σ = √Var

Trap: Don't divide by n — probabilities do the weighting.

DCF / NPV / IRRE-level★ High priority — official Canvas example

If an investment has NPV = 0 at a particular discount rate, what must the IRR be?

→ B) equal to the discount rate.

Canvas Example MCQ — Q1

  • A) zero %.
  • B) equal to the discount rate.
  • C) higher than the discount rate.
  • D) lower than the discount rate.

By definition, IRR is the rate that makes NPV exactly zero. If NPV is zero at 12%, then IRR = 12%.

Rule: NPV(r)=0 -> r is the IRR.

DCF / NPV / IRRE-level★ High priority — official Canvas example

Property price today = 20,000,000. NOI in years 1-6 = 2.00, 2.05, 2.10, 2.15, 2.20, 2.25 million; terminal value in year 6 = 25.0 million; required return = 12%. Find NPV.

→ B) 1,335,101

Canvas Example MCQ — Q2

  • A) -12,470,597
  • B) 1,335,101
  • C) 17,750,000
  • D) 5,526,164
  • E) None of A-D is close; write the correct answer.

Discount each NOI. In year 6 discount NOI6 + terminal value = 27.25m. Present value of all future cash flows = 21,335,101. NPV = 21,335,101 - 20,000,000 = 1,335,101.

Rule: Final-year cash flow = operating cash flow + terminal value.

DCF / NPV / IRRE-level★ High priority — official Canvas example

Required return is 10% and project IRR is 5%. Invest or not?

→ C) Because the IRR is lower than the required return, you should not invest.

Canvas Example MCQ — Q3

  • A) Because the IRR is higher than 0%, you should invest.
  • B) Because the IRR is lower than the required return, you should invest.
  • C) Because the IRR is lower than the required return, you should not invest.
  • D) The NPV of this project is positive.
  • E) None of A-D is close; write the correct answer.

IRR 5% is below the required 10%. Equivalently, NPV at the 10% required return is negative for a conventional project.

Rule: Accept when IRR > required return; reject when IRR < required return.

DCF / NPV / IRRE-level★ High priority — official Canvas example

Price today = $250m. Year-1 NOI = $12.8m, NOI grows 3% annually through year 5, discount rate = 9%. What year-5 sale price gives NPV = $5m?

→ C) $311,421,134

Canvas Example MCQ — Q4

  • A) $255,873,456
  • B) $357,905,558
  • C) $311,421,134
  • D) $329,447,946
  • E) None of A-D is close; write the correct answer.

NOI1-5 = 12.800, 13.184, 13.580, 13.987, 14.407m. PV of those NOIs at 9% is about 52.598m. Required PV of sale = 250 + 5 - 52.598 = 202.402m. Sale price = 202.402 x 1.09^5 = 311.421m.

Rule: When solving for a terminal value, first isolate its required present value, then compound it forward to the sale date.

DCF / NPV / IRRE-levelVery high priority

Suppose that the net present value (NPV) of an investment is zero. Then the internal rate of return (IRR) of this investment must be_____

→ B) equal to the discount rate (required rate of return).

Old Exam — Oct 2023, Q1

  • A) zero %.
  • B) equal to the discount rate (required rate of return).
  • C) higher than the discount rate (required rate of return).
  • D) lower than the discount rate (required rate of return).
  • E) None of the above (A, B, C, D) is close to be correct.

IRR is defined as the discount rate that makes NPV=0. If NPV is zero at the stated required return, IRR equals that return -> B.

Rule: Recognize cash-flow timing first. Discount each cash flow; terminal/sale proceeds are added in the sale year. IRR is the rate that sets NPV=0.

DCF / NPV / IRRE-levelVery high priority

You are a rich student as usual, and therefore you will invest a small portion of your huge wealth in a Drisky office building in downtown San Fransico. You assume that the office building will generate annual cash flows forever (in perpetuity). One year from now, your investment will pay you $2 million. You also assume that the yearly payments will grow with a nice constant annual growth rate in perpetuity of 3% (g = 3%). The present value of the growing cash flow is $25 000 000. You assume that the risk- free rate of return (the risk-free discount rate) is 6%. Then the risk premia must be_____.

→ B) 5.00 %

Old Exam — Oct 2023, Q2

  • A) 5.24 %
  • B) 5.00 %
  • C) 11.24 %.
  • D) 11.00 %.
  • E) None of the above (A, B, C, D) is close to be correct.

Growing perpetuity: PV=CF1/(r-g). 25=2/(r-g) -> r-g=8%. Total required return r=11%. Risk premium =11%-6%=5% -> B.

Rule: Recognize cash-flow timing first. Discount each cash flow; terminal/sale proceeds are added in the sale year. IRR is the rate that sets NPV=0.

DCF / NPV / IRRE-levelVery high priority

Suppose that the net present value (NPV) of an investment is positive. Then the internal rate of return (IRR) of this investment must be_____

→ C) higher than the discount rate (required rate of return).

Old Exam — Dec 2022, Q1

  • A) zero %.
  • B) equal to the discount rate (required rate of return).
  • C) higher than the discount rate (required rate of return).
  • D) lower than the discount rate (required rate of return).
  • E) None of the above (A, B, C, D) is close to be correct.

NPV is evaluated at the required return r. If NPV(r)>0 for a conventional investment, the zero-NPV rate lies above r. Therefore IRR>r.

Rule: Recognize cash-flow timing first. Discount each cash flow; terminal/sale proceeds are added in the sale year. IRR is the rate that sets NPV=0.

DCF / NPV / IRRE-levelVery high priority

Suppose that you want to buy a property today with expected future net cash flows (Net Operating Income) of $250 000 per year for the next five years (starting one year from now). After that, you expect the net cash flow to step up 20 percent, to $300 000, for the following five years. If you expect to sell the property 10 years from now, for a price 10 times the net cash flow at that time, what is the value of your property if the required rate of return is 12%?

→ E) None of the above (A, B, C, D) is close to be correct.

Old Exam — Dec 2022, Q2

  • A) $2 750 000
  • B) $1 214 100
  • C) $ 1 514 828
  • D) $1 412 556
  • E) None of the above (A, B, C, D) is close to be correct.

PV = sum[250,000/(1.12)^t, t=1..5] + sum[300,000/(1.12)^t, t=6..10] + 3,000,000/(1.12)^10 = about $2,480,748. The listed A-D values miss it, so E.

Rule: Recognize cash-flow timing first. Discount each cash flow; terminal/sale proceeds are added in the sale year. IRR is the rate that sets NPV=0.

DCF / NPV / IRRE-levelVery high priority

A property is expected to give NOI of $250 000 per year in years 1–5 and $300 000 per year in years 6–10, and is sold at the end of year 10 for 10× that year's NOI. At a 12% required return its value is about $2.481m. The seller asks $1 500 000 today. Should you do the deal according to the IRR rule?

→ A) Yes, because the IRR is higher than the required rate of return.

Old Exam — Dec 2022, Q3 · adapted

Given: Value at 12% ≈ $2 480 748; asking price $1 500 000.

  • A) Yes, because the IRR is higher than the required rate of return.
  • B) Yes, because the IRR is lower than the required rate of return.
  • C) No, because the IRR is higher than the required rate of return.
  • D) No, because the IRR is lower than the required rate of return.
  • E) None of the above (A, B, C, D) is close to be correct.

The investment value at the 12% required return is about $2.481m, above the $1.5m asking price, so NPV>0. Equivalent IRR rule: IRR>required return -> accept.

Rule: Recognize cash-flow timing first. Discount each cash flow; terminal/sale proceeds are added in the sale year. IRR is the rate that sets NPV=0.

DCF / NPV / IRRE-levelVery high priority

A property is expected to give NOI of $250 000 per year in years 1–5 and $300 000 per year in years 6–10, and is sold at the end of year 10 for 10× that year's NOI. At a 12% required return its value is $2 480 748. New information: the nominal risk-free rate is 8%, inflation is 2% and the risk premium is 3%. By what percentage does the property value change when you switch to the new required return? (You may not need all the information.)

→ E) None of the above (A, B, C, D) is close to be correct.

Old Exam — Dec 2022, Q4 · adapted

Given: Original required return 12%. New: nominal risk-free 8%, inflation 2%, risk premium 3%.

  • A) The percentage change is 4.43%.
  • B) The percentage change is ‒4.43%.
  • C) The percentage change is 4.33%.
  • D) The percentage change is ‒4.15%.
  • E) None of the above (A, B, C, D) is close to be correct.

Nominal risk-free rate is already nominal, so new required return = 8%+3%=11% (do not subtract inflation). Revalue the same cash flows at 11%: about $2.639m. Change=(2.639/2.481)-1≈+6.36% -> E.

Rule: Recognize cash-flow timing first. Discount each cash flow; terminal/sale proceeds are added in the sale year. IRR is the rate that sets NPV=0.

DCF / NPV / IRRE-levelVery high priority

Suppose that the net present value (NPV) of an investment is negative. Then the internal rate of return (IRR) of this investment must be_____

→ D) lower than the discount rate.

Old Exam — Oct 2022, Q1

  • A) zero %.
  • B) equal to the discount rate.
  • C) higher than the discount rate.
  • D) lower than the discount rate.
  • E) None of the above (A, B, C, D) is close to be correct.

For a conventional investment, NPV(r)<0 means the discount rate is above the zero-NPV rate, so IRR<required return.

Rule: Recognize cash-flow timing first. Discount each cash flow; terminal/sale proceeds are added in the sale year. IRR is the rate that sets NPV=0.

DCF / NPV / IRRE-levelVery high priority

Your investment pays you annual cash flows of $200 000 for the next 10 years. Year 10, your investment also pays you $850 000 (in addition to the $200 000). As usual all payments occur at the end of each year. How much must you pay for the investment today, if you want the IRR to be 15.0 %?

→ B) $1 214 100

Old Exam — Oct 2022, Q2

  • A) $2 011 200
  • B) $1 214 100
  • C) $2 358 300
  • D) $1 252 500
  • E) None of the above (A, B, C, D) is close to be correct.

Price that gives IRR=15% equals PV at 15%: 200,000 annuity for 10 years + 850,000 discounted from Year 10 ≈ $1.214m -> B.

Rule: Recognize cash-flow timing first. Discount each cash flow; terminal/sale proceeds are added in the sale year. IRR is the rate that sets NPV=0.

DCF / NPV / IRRE-levelVery high priority

Your investment pays you annual cash flows of $35 000 for the next 50 year. Luckily, in year 10, year 20, year 30, year 40, and year 50, your investment also pays you $800 000 (in addition to the $35 000). As usual all payments occur at the end of each year. Your required rate of return (the discount rate) is 2.5%. The present value of the cash flow is_______.

→ B) $3 017 948.8

Old Exam — Dec 2021 re-exam, Q1

  • A) $5 750 000.0
  • B) $3 017 948.8
  • C) $2 671 111.2
  • D) $5 356 751.4
  • E) None of the above (A, B, C, D) is close to be correct.

PV=35,000 annuity for 50 years at 2.5% + 800,000 discounted from years 10,20,30,40,50 ≈ $3,017,948.8 -> B.

Rule: Recognize cash-flow timing first. Discount each cash flow; terminal/sale proceeds are added in the sale year. IRR is the rate that sets NPV=0.

DCF / NPV / IRRE-levelVery high priority

You assume that your new investment will generate annual cash flow forever (in perpetuity). Today (now), your investment will pay you $1 million. Thereafter, you assume that the yearly payments grow with an incredible (according to you) constant annual growth rate in perpetuity. Your required rate of return (the discount rate) is 15%. The present value of the growing cash flow is $45 000 000. Then the constant annual growth rate must be_____.

→ A) 12.500 %

Old Exam — Dec 2021 re-exam, Q2

  • A) 12.500 %
  • B) 12.778 %
  • C) 2.500 %.
  • D) 13.5444 %.
  • E) None of the above (A, B, C, D) is close to be correct.

Payment today is 1m, then growing stream starts next year. 45 = 1 + [1(1+g)/(0.15-g)]. Solving gives g=12.5% -> A.

Rule: Recognize cash-flow timing first. Discount each cash flow; terminal/sale proceeds are added in the sale year. IRR is the rate that sets NPV=0.

DCF / NPV / IRRE-levelVery high priority

You assume that your new investment will generate annual cash flow forever (in perpetuity). Next year (year one) your investment will pay you $5 million. Thereafter, you assume that the yearly payments grow with an incredible (according to you) constant annual growth rate in perpetuity. Your required rate of return (the discount rate) is 12%. The present value of the growing cash flow is $62 500 000. Then the constant annual growth rate must be_____.

→ C) 4 %.

Old Exam — Oct 2021, Q2

  • A) 6 %
  • B) 5 %
  • C) 4 %.
  • D) 3 %.
  • E) None of the above (A, B, C, D) is close to be correct.

Growing perpetuity PV=CF1/(r-g): 62.5=5/(0.12-g) -> 0.12-g=0.08 -> g=4% -> C.

Rule: Recognize cash-flow timing first. Discount each cash flow; terminal/sale proceeds are added in the sale year. IRR is the rate that sets NPV=0.

Scenario RiskE-levelVery high priority

The expected IRR is closest to______.

→ B) 6.83 %

Old Exam — Dec 2022, Q6

Given: Scenario setup: purchase price $45m; 15-year holding period; Year-1 NOI $2.5m; growth rates -0.5%, +1.5%, +2.5%; exit value at Year 15 uses Year-16 NOI / scenario exit cap (6%, 5.5%, 5%); probabilities 28%,45%,27%.

  • A) 6.79 %
  • B) 6.83 %
  • C) 7.05 %
  • D) 7.10 %
  • E) None of the above (A, B, C, D) is close to be correct.

Method: compute the return/NPV separately in every scenario, then E[X]=sum p_s X_s. Risk: SD=sqrt(sum p_s(X_s-E[X])^2). Source correct answer: B) 6.83 %.

Rule: Probabilities sum to 1. Expected value is probability-weighted; variance uses squared deviations around the expected value.

DCF / NPV / IRRD–A levelVery high priority

Centre Point unlevered cash flows: CF0=-$885,000, CF1=$89,100, CF2=$91,773, CF3=$94,526.19, CF4=$97,361.98, CF5=$1,074,896.04 (NOI5+NSP5). At a required unlevered return of 10%, what is the NPV, and should the investor invest?

→ A) NPV ≈ +$76,789.79 → invest

Computer Lab 1 — Exercise 2A, Question 3

  • A) NPV ≈ +$76,789.79 → invest
  • B) NPV ≈ -$76,789.79 → reject
  • C) NPV ≈ +$174,896.04 → invest
  • D) NPV ≈ $0 → indifferent

Discounting at 10%: PV1=81,000, PV2=75,845.45, PV3=71,018.93, PV4=66,499.54, PV5=667,425.87. Sum=1,038,789.79−885,000=+$76,789.79. Positive NPV → invest.

Rule: NPV > 0 at the required return → invest; NPV < 0 → reject.

Returns & CompoundingD–A levelVery high priority

For the Centre Point unlevered cash flows (CF0=-$885,000; CF1-5 as given), NPV at 12% = +$6,796.50 and NPV at 13% = -$25,642.90. Using linear interpolation, approximate the unlevered IRR, and compare it against the required unlevered return of 10%.

→ A) ≈12.21%; exceeds required return → invest

Computer Lab 1 — Exercise 2A, Question 5

  • A) ≈12.21%; exceeds required return → invest
  • B) ≈12.21%; below required return → reject
  • C) ≈10.00%; exactly meets the required return
  • D) ≈13.00%; exceeds required return → invest

IRR ≈ 12% + [6,796.50/(6,796.50+25,642.90)]×1% = 12% + 0.21% = 12.21%. Since 12.21% > 10% required unlevered return, invest.

Rule: Interpolation: IRR ≈ r_L + [NPV_L/(NPV_L − NPV_H)]×(r_H − r_L).

Returns & CompoundingE-levelVery high priority

By definition, what is the NPV of a project when the discount rate used equals the project's IRR?

→ A) Zero

Computer Lab 1 — Exercise 2A, Question 7

  • A) Zero
  • B) Equal to the initial investment
  • C) Always positive
  • D) Equal to the sum of undiscounted cash flows

IRR is defined as the discount rate that sets NPV = 0, so plugging IRR back into the NPV formula always yields NPV = 0.

Rule: IRR is the rate r such that NPV(r) = 0 — a definitional identity.

Mortgage & LeverageD–A levelHigh priority

Centre Point levered (equity) cash flows: CF0=-$241,162.50; CF1=$30,655.65; CF2=$33,328.65; CF3=$36,081.84; CF4=$38,917.63; CF5=$385,425.51. At a required equity return of 16%, calculate the levered NPV and decide.

→ A) NPV ≈ +$38,149.47 → invest

Computer Lab 1 — Exercise 2B, Question 9

  • A) NPV ≈ +$38,149.47 → invest
  • B) NPV ≈ -$38,149.47 → reject
  • C) NPV ≈ +$76,789.79 → invest
  • D) NPV ≈ $0 → indifferent

Discounting the equity CFs at 16%: PV1=26,427.28, PV2=24,768.62, PV3=23,116.11, PV4=21,493.86, PV5=183,506.10, sum=279,311.97. NPV=-241,162.50+279,311.97=+$38,149.47 → invest.

Rule: Levered NPV decision rule: discount equity cash flows at the required EQUITY return (not the unlevered return).

Mortgage & LeverageD–A levelHigh priority

For Centre Point's levered cash flows, NPV at 20% = +$2,071.48 and NPV at 21% = -$5,942.50. Interpolating, the levered IRR is approximately 20.25%. Given a required equity return of 16%, what is the investment decision?

→ A) Invest — 20.25% exceeds the required equity return of 16%

Computer Lab 1 — Exercise 2B, Question 10

  • A) Invest — 20.25% exceeds the required equity return of 16%
  • B) Reject — 20.25% is below the required equity return
  • C) Indifferent — IRR equals the required return
  • D) Cannot decide without the unlevered IRR

Levered IRR (~20.25%) > required equity return (16%), so by the IRR decision rule the investor should invest.

Rule: IRR decision rule: invest if IRR > required (hurdle) return for that cash-flow stream.

Scenario RiskD–A levelVery high priority

A $2,000,000 property, pessimistic scenario: Year-1 NOI=$200,000 declining 2%/year, sale price in Year5=$1.8m (cash flows: -2,000,000; 200,000; 196,000; 192,080; 188,238.40; 1,984,473.63). NPV at 7% = +$73,412.82 and NPV at 8% = -$5,336.86. What is the approximate IRR?

→ A) ≈7.93%

Computer Lab 1 — Exercise 3 Problem 3

  • A) ≈7.93%
  • B) ≈7.07%
  • C) ≈8.00%
  • D) ≈6.84%

IRR ≈ 7% + [73,412.82/(73,412.82+5,336.86)]×1% = 7% + 0.93% = 7.93%.

Rule: Linear interpolation between a low rate with positive NPV and a high rate with negative NPV approximates IRR.

Scenario RiskE-levelVery high priority

A $2,000,000 property has Most Likely scenario: NOI = $200,000 flat every year, sale price after 5 years = $2,000,000 (equal to purchase price). Why is the IRR exactly 10.00% in this scenario without needing trial-and-error?

→ A) Because annual NOI (10% of price) plus an unchanged resale price means a 10% discount rate makes NPV exactly zero

Computer Lab 3 — Problem 3 (Most likely)

  • A) Because annual NOI (10% of price) plus an unchanged resale price means a 10% discount rate makes NPV exactly zero
  • B) Because IRR always equals NOI/Purchase price regardless of other cash flows
  • C) Because the sale price must always equal the purchase price for any IRR to exist
  • D) Because flat NOI implies zero IRR

NOI/Purchase price = 200,000/2,000,000 = 10%, exactly matching a constant 'coupon-like' yield, and with the exit value unchanged, the investment behaves like a perpetual-income bond returning exactly 10% — so NPV(10%)=0 trivially.

Rule: When periodic income is a constant percentage of invested capital and the capital value is returned unchanged at the end, the IRR equals that constant income yield.

Scenario RiskD–A levelVery high priority

Optimistic scenario for a $2,000,000 property: Year-1 NOI=$200,000 growing 3%/yr, sale price Year5=$2,200,000. Total Year-5 cash flow (NOI5+sale) = $2,425,101.76. NPV at 12.1% ≈ +$1,299 and at 12.2% ≈ -$6,142. What is the approximate IRR?

→ A) ≈12.12%

Computer Lab 3 — Problem 3 (Optimistic)

  • A) ≈12.12%
  • B) ≈12.17%
  • C) ≈12.20%
  • D) ≈12.10%

IRR ≈ 12.1% + [1,299/(1,299+6,142)]×0.1% = 12.1% + 0.017% ≈ 12.12%.

Rule: Linear interpolation between adjacent trial rates with opposite-signed NPV gives a close IRR approximation.

Scenario RiskD–A levelVery high priority

In the Pessimistic scenario with $1,500,000 debt financing (10%, 15yr), the levered equity cash flows are CF0=-500,000, CF1=6,571.08, CF2=2,571.08, CF3=-1,348.92, CF4=-5,190.52, CF5=571,295.42. NPV at 2.8% ≈ +$553 and at 2.9% ≈ -$1,850. What is the approximate levered IRR?

→ A) ≈2.82%

Computer Lab 3 — Problem 4A

  • A) ≈2.82%
  • B) ≈2.85%
  • C) ≈7.93% (same as the unlevered pessimistic IRR)
  • D) ≈2.90%

IRR ≈ 2.8% + [553/(553+1,850)]×0.1% = 2.8%+0.023% ≈ 2.82%.

Rule: Leverage can sharply reduce equity IRR in weak scenarios because fixed debt service erodes a larger share of a smaller NOI base.